Explanations:The question states that you should do Three Point Estimation using Beta Distribution. The formula for this estimation technique is 4a + b + c / 6, where a = Most Likely Estimate, b = Estimate based on Best-case scenario, and c = Estimate based on Worst-case scenario. So, the Three Point Estimate using Beta distribution is (4 *108000) + 90000 + 138000 / 6 = 660000/6 = $ 110000.
Explanations:As the change has been approved, you should always update the baseline (in this case, the scope and schedule baseline) before implementing the change. This will ensure that you track performance against the new scope and schedule, and not against the old benchmarks.
Explanations:This question is meant to test your understanding of the difference between corrective action and preventive action. Defect repair might sound tempting, but it is only applicable for the issues found in the current delivery. This is also not about Quality Control, so that leaves you with only two options: Corrective or Preventive actions. Corrective actions are always preceded by nonconformity, while preventive actions are never preceded by nonconformity. In this case, nonconformity in the form of a lot of issues during Quality Assurance were reported. The root cause was identified to be the need of a standard checklist which was later used. Preventive action is always taken proactively. In the question stated there is no demonstration of any proactive steps taken and hence this is not an example of Preventive action.
Explanations:As a project manager, you indeed have a reason to be worried if your project has already been signed off on Cost Plus Fee type of contracts. In such contracts, you, the buyer, needs to pay the seller for all the costs and also an agreed percentage of the cost. As a result, there is no motivation on the seller to control the costs; in fact, it is in the interest of the seller to increase the costs. It is not necessary that all projects should always be T and M or Fixed Price. Option A is clearly wrong since all the risks are, in fact, with the buyer and not the seller.
Explanations:Defects to deliverables, corrective actions, and preventive actions need to undergo change control. So all the above statements are true except option B.
Explanations:This is an example of Gold Plating. Integrated change control deals with formally approving or rejecting changes before they are implemented, so it is not the correct answer. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique, so it too is not the correct answer. While Scope Creep is related to change in scope, it is related to uncontrolled changes in product or projects scope and is often due to client interference. Gold plating is done intentionally or knowingly for some strategic purpose. Here, the manager believes that by adding the extra features, future projects could be bagged.
Explanations:Originally, you had 10 stakeholders to communicate with, so the number of communication channels was 10 * (10-1) /2 = 45. However, 3 new stakeholders got added, while 1 stakeholder got reduced. So, the total number of stakeholders = 10 + 3 -1 = 12 and hence the total number of communication channels is (12 * (12-1)) /2 = 66.
Explanations:The most important process that could have prevented this situation would have been Scope Planning. Project deliverables are defined during scope planning, so proper implementation of this process could have prevented this situation.
Explanations:As this is related to a contract, it must be a formal written form of communication. Any other form of communication related to contracts is not acceptable.
Explanations:This is an example of Risk acceptance strategy as there is nothing you can do about situations not in your control. Exploit is meant for positive situations, while risk mitigation is where you have a strategy to either reduce the risk impact or probability. Neither is transfer correct as the question does not state that someone else will be responsible for handling the risk.
Explanations:The question states that you have decided to uniquely tag each identified activity, which is nothing but Activity Identifier. This is done during creation of the Activity List.
Explanations:Considering cross-located teams and difference in cultures, the best choice of communication in this case would be formal and written.
Explanations:Plan Stakeholder Engagement is the process to develop a strategy to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle.
Explanations:Here the team member is being expected to follow instructions from both the Project Manager and the Functional Manager. This is never the case in a Functional or Projectized organization where the lines of authority are clearly defined. A weak matrix organization is more like a Functional Organization where the project manager has almost no authority. The scenario explained above is typical of a balanced matrix organization where power resides equally distributed between the functional and project manager.
Explanations:The release criteria include both the timing of the release of team members and the method in which you will release them.
Explanations:All of the above are correct, except option A since hiring costs have nothing to do with Cost of Quality. Prevention and Appraisal Costs are the expenditures during the project to avoid failures, while Internal and External Failure Costs are those incurred during and after the project because of failures.
Explanations:Quality audits are part of the Manage Quality process.
Explanations:Updating the WBS during Define Activities is often called Refinements. It occurs with riskier projects.
Explanations:Project Quality Management addresses both the management of the project and the product. It improves project management as well as the quality of the product. It ensures that the project will satisfy customer requirements.
Explanations:Explaining the change procedure and asking to submit a request for change is the best choice.
Explanations:This is an example of project incentive.
Explanations:Options C and D are incorrect as the Backward Pass is not used to calculate the duration. In fact, the critical path is calculated based on duration. Option A talks about Early Start and Early Finish, which are calculated using Forward Pass." Using "Backward Pass
Explanations:The riskiest for the seller among the options stated is Firm Fixed Price Contract, FFP. It’s a Fixed price contract in which total costs are fixed. The scope of work is clearly defined and stated. Cost-reimbursable contracts are the least risky for the seller since the costs are not fixed and paid at actuals. Time and material have medium risk from the perspective of the buyer and seller and are typically used for smaller dollar amounts.
Explanations:It defines how work will be authorized and how work will be done at the right time and in the right sequence. Option B is not correct since who performs the work comes from the responsibility assignment matrix and neither is option C the right answer. Option D is related to monitoring and controlling work performance data, which is not covered by Work Authorization System.
Explanations:It is stated that the issues experienced in the project were ignored, so the past performance is not considered and the planned values are considered. So, the formula: EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) = 300 + (600 - 100) EAC = 800.
Explanations:Quality Audits are meant to ascertain if the project activities conform to the policies and procedures, so it is not the correct answer. Activity Network diagrams are used for scheduling, while Process decision program charts are used to anticipate intermediate steps. The correct answer is Process Analysis, which is used to identify a problem and its cause and develop preventive actions.
Explanations:Why is the client being unreasonable? Why does the client want to make these changes? Obviously, your colleague is in a tough situation. However tough the problem is, a project manager must not act impulsively by seeking legal action or refuse or immediately start making the changes. When faced with a problem, a project manager should first try and find the root cause and not react. So, in this case, the best advice for your colleague would be to set up a discussion with the client and try to understand the needs of the client.
Explanations:Once you have created the change request and submitted for approval, you don’t need to set up a separate meeting with the change control board unless asked for. Work performance reports will be shared as per agreed frequency. However, this is irrelevant to the question. You might be tempted to jump in and start work immediately, but first, the impacted baselines should be updated. In this case, all the three baselines have to be updated. This is necessary to ensure that performance information is tracked against the new baselines and not the old ones.
Explanations:Cost of Hiring has nothing to do with cost of Poor Quality, so it is not the correct answer. Cost of Poor Quality is just another term for Failure Costs. Failure Cost is generally categorized into External and Internal Failure costs, so option D is correct. Prevention and Appraisal costs are costs of conformance, which are the costs incurred to avoid failures. Hence, these are not considered cost of Poor Quality.
Explanations:The correct answer is Resource Calendars. These provide information regarding availability of resources and also the duration of their availability. So, referring to these documents would be the first course of action.
Explanations:As the name suggests, Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix is used to identify the current engagement level of project stakeholders. It can also be used to indicate the desired level of engagement. Through this analytical process, gaps in engagement levels can be identified and action plans and communication plans can be generated to bridge these gaps. The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix does not list stakeholders depending on their engagement level, so options C and D are clearly wrong. While you might be tempted to choose option B since you do list down all the stakeholders in a matrix in the document, the better and more qualified answer is Option A. Here, along with the complete list of stakeholders, you also indicate their current and desired engagement level.
Explanations:The best option is to contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.
Explanations:Earned Value Analysis is used to measure performance based on Scope, Schedule, and Cost.
Explanations:All the options except Option D are true regarding scope verification. This process can also be done at the end of each project phase in the project lifecycle. So, the correct answer is option D since scope verification has nothing to do with schedule variance.
Explanations:A fishbone diagram is used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects.
Explanations:Vroom's Expectancy theory is based on the idea that people believe there are relationships between the effort they put in at work, the performance reviews/ratings they are credited for the effort, and the rewards they receive from their effort and performance review ratings. So, people will be motivated if they believe that hard work and effort will lead to good performance reviews and good performance reviews will lead to desired rewards. This theory consists of three key elements: Expectancy - Perception of an employee of how much and what amount of effort will lead to a desirable performance rating. Instrumentality - Perception or expectation that a good performance rating would translate into a hefty salary hike. Valence - Preference of an employee for a certain reward. Option B is clearly unrelated to this theory, so it is not the correct answer. Option C is related to Herzberg’s Hygiene theory, so it too is not the correct answer. Option D is about Maslow’s Theory of Hierarchical needs, so it's not the correct answer.
Explanations:The point of total assumption (PTA) is a point where cost overruns will cause a dollar for dollar decrease in profit for the seller. Hence, any subsequent cost will have to be borne by your company.
Explanations:This is a question meant to test your understanding of change management. Any change, however small or big, should always be first analyzed for its impact on the constraints—scope, cost, and schedule—and then submitted to change control for approval. Changes without formal approval should not be implemented.
Explanations:This is the only correct answer.
Explanations:A contract addendum needs to be signed by your company and the vendor.
Explanations:You have avoided the risk. By interchanging the tasks, you have ensured that the resource who could go on a long vacation does not work on critical path activities. There is no question of exploiting the risk as this is not a positive risk. This is not a case of risk mitigation since you have neither created a backup plan nor come up with an alternate strategy.
Explanations:The acceptable schedule variances are defined in the Schedule Management Plan.
Explanations:All the options except verifying scope" are performed during project closure. Ensuring deliverables meet contract requirements and formal acceptance are key activities of project closure. Capturing lessons learned is also a very important activity performed during project closure. However
Explanations:The riskiest for the buyer among the options stated above is Cost plus fixed fee. It’s a cost-reimbursable type of contract in which total costs are unknown, so there is an element of risk involved as the total scope of work is not clear. Time and material have medium risk from the perspective of the buyer and are typically used for smaller dollar amounts. Of the options, the fixed price options are the least risky for the buyer since the cost will not change no matter what for the buyer.
Explanations:The correct answer in this case is improper stakeholder analysis - Option D. While options A, B, and C could be true, the question gives no indication of these being the case. The question does mention about an important client whose expectations were not met. Stakeholder analysis deals with identifying all the stakeholders, their needs and expectations, and their influence. In this case, the client's needs are not being met, which indicates that stakeholder analysis and identification were not done correctly.
Explanations:Top-down estimating is also called analogous estimating.
Explanations:The ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
Explanations:This is an example of exploiting the risk. The client is happy with the work progress, and there might also be an opportunity that the client could be interested in the derivatives segment. This opportunity could lead to more business. By inviting key managers from the derivatives segment, you are enhancing the possibility of generating additional revenue. Hence, this is an example of exploiting the risk. Note that this is a positive risk.
Explanations:These plans are called management plans.
Explanations:Management reserve is meant for unknown unknowns and is part of the scope of the project. The question clearly states that the work is in scope. Contingency reserves are for known unknowns, which is not the case here. The correct answer is Management Reserve.
Explanations:This is because both SPI and CPI are less than 1.
Explanations:Analogous estimating relies on previous similar projects as the basis of estimation. So, it relies on historical information. This technique is used when there is limited amount of detailed information like during early phases of the project. It is less costly and less time-consuming. As time is a constraint as stated in the question, this is the best choice.
Explanations:No changes should be made without a formal approval, so option A is clearly wrong. Rejecting ideas without doing a thorough analysis of the impact is also not the correct approach. Now the option of creating a change request and submitting it for approval sounds like the right option. However, the better approach is to always do an analysis of the impact on scope, time, and cost and then submit the change request. So while option C is correct, the better option is D.
Explanations:This question is meant to test your understanding of the difference between corrective action and preventive action. Defect repair might sound tempting, but it is only applicable for the issues found for the current delivery. Here, the question also states some additional steps being mandated (code review for all subsequent deliveries). This is also not about Quality Control, so that leaves us with only two options - Corrective or Preventive actions. Corrective actions are always preceded by nonconformity, while preventive action is never preceded by nonconformity. In this case, nonconformity in the form of a lot of issues during Quality Assurance was reported. The root cause was identified to be the need of a standard checklist which was then used. This would have been a case of Corrective action had no other actions been taken other than usage of the code review checklist for the current delivery. In addition, a decision was taken to use the checklist for all subsequent deliveries to ensure the same issues did not occur. Preventive action is always taken proactively. Here, mandating usage of code review checklist for other deliveries is a demonstration of proactive steps taken. Hence, this is an example of Preventive action.
Explanations:If activities on the critical path are delayed, it can lead to a delay in the entire Project. Hence, options A and B are incorrect. Option D is a very subjective answer, and nowhere does the problem state how the stakeholders would take the news. So, the best answer is option C.
Explanations:SWOT involves identification of the strengths and weaknesses of the organization. This technique then identifies the threats due to organization's weakness as well as opportunities due to the organization's strengths. So, option D is the correct answer. The other three options are also risk identification techniques, but the question is specific to SWOT.
Explanations:Discretionary Dependency is also known as Soft Logic or Preferred Logic or Preferential Logic. Note that this is not a mandatory dependency as it is not a Must Have" but more a "Should have." Discretionary dependency decisions are usually based on best practices and business knowledge. In this case
Explanations:Options A, B, and C each provide great details of what a WBS Dictionary should contain. So, they all seem like the right choices. However, the question asks about the BEST choice of attributes in a WBS Dictionary, which is provided in Option D. Note that the WBS and WBS Dictionary are corelated by WBS Name and Work Package ID
Explanations:The change log is used to log all change requests—approved and rejected changes. Along with the changes, their impact on cost, time, and risk details are also documented. So, option A is not true regarding change logs and hence is the correct answer.
Explanations:S curve shows a relationship between Actual Cost, Planned Value, and Earned Value.
Explanations:All of the statements are true except the statement regarding Quantitative Risk Analysis. Quantitative Risk analysis does not deal with prioritizing risks. The prioritization occurs in the Qualitative Risk Analysis process. Quantitative Risk Analysis deals with assigning numeric values to risks.
Explanations:This question tests your knowledge of contracts and procurement. At the onset, all the answers seem to be correct with respect to contracts. A contract is legally binding in nature; it’s an agreement between the seller providing some service or product and the buyer compensating the seller. Some of the risks can indeed be transferred to the seller through terms and conditions. Due to the legal nature, contracts are subject to an intensive approval process, much more intense than other plans. Hence in the context of the question, option D is the right answer.
Explanations:When as a buyer you are clear of the scope and statement of work, the contract choice should be Fixed-price. In this type of contract, if scope is clearly defined, then almost all the risk lies with the seller. Here, the buyer is smug with the confidence of having had experience in executing similar projects in the past and has also broken down WBS into detailed activities. So, scope is clear and the correct answer is option B.
Explanations:The Resource Breakdown Structure shows various resources, both human and mechanical, needed for the project.
Explanations:Crashing deals with adding additional resources, and is not an option here. Fast Tracking is a schedule compression technique by performing activities in parallel if they can be overlapped. Note that Fast Tracking may result in increased risk and rework.
Explanations:Scope verification is performed not only while a project is being executed but it is also performed when a project is terminated. It is used to determine the level of completion.
Explanations:Pad is adding time as a buffer to project estimate. As the team member was uncertain of what it would take and, as stated, to be on the safer side she simply doubled the estimate. Padding is a sign of poor Project Management.
Explanations:The correct answer is Analogous estimating. It relies on past or historical data of similar nature. As the project is at an early state, where the detailed requirements are not yet available, this is the best technique suited to come to an early estimate, though it may not be very accurate.
Explanations:The process is Estimate Activity Durations. And for this process all the options mentioned are used as inputs
Explanations:This is where this information is stored.
Explanations:Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints and creating project schedule belong to Develop Schedule process.
Explanations:All the four options listed above are information gathering techniques, but the correct answer is Delphi Technique. This is a form of information gathering technique where inputs from experts is solicited anonymously without gathering them together.
Explanations:Option A and Option D are related to Expectancy theory; Option B is related to Theory X style of management. So, these options are not the correct answers. Option C is the correct answer. The Achievement Theory of Motivation states there are three types of motivational needs: need for achievement, need for authority and power, and need for affiliation. As per this theory, a strong affiliation motivation" undermines a manager's objectivity because of his need to be liked
Explanations:The key benefits of Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process is that it will maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and the environment changes.
Explanations:The question is asking about the best immediate course of action. The first course of action should be to add this risk in the Risk register. The possible impact and risk probability should also be added. No other action should be performed prior to this. So, scheduling an emergency meeting, which might sound as the first thing to do, is not correct and neither is making any change to the design. Writing up a change request will only come after the risk is documented and its probability and impact accessed. So, the first course of action should be to update the Risk register.
Explanations:The duration of both the paths is 7 weeks. Remember that the path with the longest duration is the critical path and you can have more than one Critical Path.
Explanations:The project manager must ensure all of the above in Procurement. Many times the project manager works with the contract manager. An important point is that the Project Manager must be assigned before the contract is signed.
Explanations:Theory X assumes employees cannot be trusted and will only work if rewarded or under threat and coercion. This theory does not consider employees to work on their own. So, the correct option is A. The other options consider an employee to be self-motivated and self-starter, which is not what Theory X is based on.
Explanations:Note that the question states that new projects are about to start and past lessons learned of projects could have served as good inputs for the other projects. Not having lessons learned handicaps the managers.
Explanations:In this case, you have already tried out the option of discussing with the team member once, which is an example of informal verbal. Clearly, that has not worked, so it calls for a more strict reprimand. Hence, the correct form of communication would be a formal written communication.
Explanations:Decomposition deals with breaking down deliverables into small discrete work packages that can be planned better. It also helps prevent work from slipping through the cracks and gives the project team a better picture of the work involved.
Explanations:SPI = EV / PV = 300000/550000 = less than 1. An SPI less than 1 indicates the project is behind schedule.
Explanations:As per PMBOK® Guide - Sixth Edition, Pareto chart is not included as a tool under control quality process.
Explanations:All changes, including corrective actions, preventive actions, and defect repair, must undergo change control prior to the change being made. It is also necessary to document the corrective and preventive actions taken in historical data as this can serve as a good input for subsequent projects. Reprimanding the team member and allowing uncontrolled changes to happen are a recipe for disaster in project management.
Explanations:As the nature of work is not quite clear and this deals with contracting additional staff, the best choice of contract is T and M. Fixed price contracts are applicable where scope of work is quite clear, which is not the case here. Choosing a Cost-reimbursable contract makes no sense since the unit rate of staff can be determined and agreed between you and the seller. So, the best option is T and M.
Explanations:A process with lack of consistency and predictability is called out of control.
Explanations:Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the members in the project.
Explanations:ISO Stands for International Organization for Standardization.
Explanations:Negative activity float indicates your project is behind schedule. Adding more resource is the best option.
Explanations:The purpose of a quality audit is to identify inefficient and ineffective policies.
Explanations:All the options except Option A are true regarding the Scope Management plan. The Scope Management Plan is part of the Project Management Plan.
Explanations:ADM (Arrow Diagramming Method) uses dummy activities to correctly show all logical relationships. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) uses arrows as activities, and nodes are used to connect and show dependencies. The Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) uses boxes or nodes as activities and arrows as dependencies between the nodes.
Explanations:Let’s assume the duration to be X days. 12 * X = 1000 + 4 * X, 8X = 1000, X = 125. This means that if the ladder is used for any duration equal or greater than 125 days, it is economical to purchase rather than lease. So, in other words, to lease the duration should be equal to or less than 125 days.
Explanations:Network diagram is best to show Interdependencies between activities.
Explanations:Parametric Estimation is most applicable in this scenario as the cost per unit is readily available. Parametric estimation uses the relationship between variables to determine cost or duration. It calculates the cost or duration of the unit and also determines the number of units required. This helps in calculating the cost/duration of the project.
Explanations:A data point in a control chart that requires investigation is called a special cause.
Explanations:A Heuristic is a thumb rule. An example is cost per square feet.
Explanations:The correct answer is Communication Management Plan. This Plan provides information such as frequency of communication, type of communication, and who is responsible for communication.
Explanations:The best choice is Performance reporting with respect to the triple constraints - Scope, Schedule, and Cost. Forecasts are future projections and risk register deals with risks, which are not the right options. While status reports could be an option, the best answer is Performance reporting.
Explanations:Crashing is a technique used to shorten the schedule by adding resources. Options A and D are clearly not correct, and Option C is an example of Fast Tracking.
Explanations:According to Herzberg's Hygiene theory, certain factors termed Hygiene factors" exist. Their absence can lead to dissatisfaction. So
Explanations:Project closure procedures must be followed. They must be followed irrespective of whether the project was successfully completed or if it was terminated. We always follow closure procedures. So in this case, the Project Manager should choose option C.
Explanations:Generally activities on Critical Path have Zero float. Critical Path is the one which has the longest duration. So, options B, C, and D are not correct. You can always have more than one Critical Path in a project.
Explanations:Best option is to contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance.
Explanations:SPI greater than 1 indicates the project is ahead of schedule, while a value less than 1 indicates the project is behind schedule. CPI value greater than 1 indicates project is under budget, while a value less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.
Explanations:Check if the activity is on critical path" is the best option."
Explanations:Earned value analysis provides details of planned vs. actual values that help in determining the health of the project. Work performance data is the actual information that helps in measuring performance. Project management software helps track data, while Pareto chart is used in Quality Control.
Explanations:Precise and vague are not forms of communication, while all others are.
Explanations:If there is scope change by a functional manager during the execution of the project, then the project manager sends the impact detail of the changes to functional manager.
Explanations:There are multiple options that seem correct; however, they are partially correct. The scope baseline and schedule baseline are not the only baselines against which project performance is measured, so options B and C are definitely not the best options. The project management plan contains details of all the baselines, but a more specific plan to refer to is the Performance Measurement Baseline. It contains details of the scope, schedule, and cost baseline, and it could also contain quality and technical parameters. While the project management plan includes the baselines, it is actually the Performance Measurement Baseline which is used for comparing performances, and the Performance Measurement Baseline is a part of the Project Management Plan.
Explanations:You have mitigated the risk, where by asking for the trainees to be trained, you have created a Risk response strategy. Should this team member go on leave, the trainees would execute the task. So, you have not avoided the risk. Again, there is no question of exploiting the risk as this is not a positive risk. This is not a case of Risk transfer either, so the correct answer is Risk Mitigation.
Explanations:Unless the employee has signed the NDA with his previous organization, there is no obligation for him not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the competitor.
Explanations:A product description defines the contracted work based on the requirements of the customer.
Explanations:Schedule network diagram is an output of Sequence Activities.
Explanations:The question states the use of Three point estimate using triangular distribution. The formula for this estimation technique is a + b + c /3, where a = Most Likely estimate, b = Estimate based on analysis of the Best-case scenario, and c = Estimate based on analysis of the Worst-case scenario. So, the Three point estimate using Triangular distribution is 108000 + 90000 + 138000 / 3 = 336000/3 = $ 112000.
Explanations:Option A is to be used if past CPI is expected to continue. Option B is to be used if future work is going to be performed at the planned rate. Option C is to be used if both CPI and SPI influence remaining work. Option D is to be used when the initial plan is no longer valid, which is the case here.
Explanations:Validate scope deals with validating what was delivered and what was required.
Explanations:This is the only correct answer.
Explanations:WBS Dictionary provides details such as description of work to be done for each work package, any schedule milestones, and statement of work. It is also used to prevent scope creep.
Explanations:You have mitigated the risk. By asking for the trainees to be trained, you have created a Risk response strategy. Should this team member go on leave, the trainees would execute the task. So, you have not avoided the risk. Again, there is no question of exploiting the risk as this is not a positive risk. This is not a case of Risk avoidance either, so the correct answer is Risk Mitigation.
Explanations:The project sponsor is not responsible for managing the project nor the quality of deliverables; it is the role of the project manager. While the sponsor can aid in identifying key stakeholders, the key area a sponsor plays a part in is providing funding. The sponsor provides funding directly or indirectly and is responsible for approving or denying the budget. The project sponsor is also generally the one who approves the Project Charter, but that is not mentioned in the question.
Explanations:The best option is to ask the person responsible about the difference and create the most accurate estimate that is practical.
Explanations:The main objective of the sponsor is to create and publish a formally approved project charter. While the sponsor can help assist in preventing and managing changes to the project, this is the project manager's job. Creating baselines and publishing work performance reports are also the job of the project manager.
Explanations:Schedule network diagram is an output of Sequence Activities, NEXT process is Estimate Activity Resources.
Explanations:Work performance data is converted to work performance information. This in turn is converted to work performance reports, which provide the staus in the form of electronic dashboard.
Explanations:A fair contract shares a reasonable amount of risk between the buyer and the seller.
Explanations:A project expediter has no authority or decision-making ability. A project coordinator has some amount of authority and some amount of decision-making ability.
Explanations:When a person desires to exceed or excel in her tasks, it is considered the highest level of need. The person now wants to realize her full potential, which is Self-actualization.
Explanations:Theory Y believes positively about employees, and only option D reflects a positive attitude and belief. Option A, B, and C are not the correct answer as they are the opposite of belief in employees. They indicate lack of trust in an employee, which is not a correct assumption in the Theory Y style of management.
Explanations:Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the project.
Explanations:A unilateral contract is simply a purchase order.
Explanations:This is an example of Risk transfer where you have advised your fellow manager to insure against theft through insurance. Note that this does not eliminate the risk rather the risk is simply to be borne by the insurance company. It is also worthwhile to note that the transfer of negative risks comes with a premium to be paid to the party responsible for handling the risk. In this case the insurance company would need to be paid a premium for bearing this risk.
Explanations:TCPI is a measure of the ratio of the work remaining to the funds remaining.
Explanations:The correct answer is $1150. In the case of the rework effort, the EMV is -$200. The EMV of the side effect is $1350. So, the total EMV is $1150.
Explanations:Parametric and Analogous are clearly not the right choices. Being a new project, you do not have any historical data to rely on. So, Analogous estimation is not an option. You also don’t have any data of costs per unit, so Parametric estimation is also not an option. Now between Top-down and Bottom-up, both these approaches use the WBS to come up with the estimates. With Top-down, we start with the high level and then drill down into the lower levels. Bottom-up estimates are more accurate compared with Top-down. Bottom-up is also a more expensive and time-consuming type of estimate. However, the question clearly indicates that time is not a concern. So, the correct answer is Bottom-up approach. Top-down approach is used only if we have enough historical information on the project, which is not true here.
Explanations:All the options are correct except option D. Activity attributes do not provide details of root causes of issues.
Explanations:Both Sean and Laura do not wield a lot of power and authority. However, the differentiator seems to be their level of interest. While Sean is disinterested, Laura has a high level of interest in the project. Stakeholders who have a high level of interest but who wield insignificant authority or power should be kept informed—in this case Laura. Stakeholders who have a low level of interest and who wield insignificant authority or power should be monitored—in this case Sean.
Explanations:The question is intended to cause a confusion between preventive and corrective action. However, the question does not state any example of any steps taken proactively, so Preventive Action is not the right answer. If we were to consider Corrective action, it is a future response to the defect repair process or the correction so that the cause of error or non-conformity will not occur again, which the above question does not state. So, this is not an example of Corrective action. The question does not state anything other than reporting defects, which is Quality Control. So, option D is not the right answer. Here, the straightforward answer is option C Defect repair.
Explanations:Quality audits are part of a manage quality process.
Explanations:The correct answer is A, which states all the necessary details to be provided as the Basis of estimates.
Explanations:The type of risk here is an unknown risk. For known risks, risk responses can be proactively planned for. For the known risks, where we cannot plan proactively, we set aside a reserve called Contingency Reserves. For unknown risks, we set aside a Management Reserve. Cost management Plan deals with how you will manage costs on your project, and Cost baseline is the baselined cost expected to be expended on the project.
Explanations:The question is looking for a simple mathematical formula. Do not get flustered by all the numbers. The activity duration is 150 Days. So, cost of leasing is 150 * 1200 = 180000, while cost of an outright purchase is 96000 + 200 * 150 = 96000 + 30000 = 126000 USD. So, definitely leasing is not cheaper and purchasing the machinery is the better option. Now which is the breakeven point of a purchase? On the 96th day of usage of the machinery, the cost of purchase incurred is 115200 $, which is exactly the cost incurred if it were leased. So, 96th day is the breakeven point and hence the correct answer is option C. Take a breather; relax and digest the details. They are not as hard as they look.
Explanations:Activity float = Late Start - Early Start = 16-5 = 11 days
Explanations:WBS does not help identify dependencies.
Explanations:Both options of refusing to make the change outright or making the change immediately without analyzing are incorrect, so clearly options A and D are not the right choices. The question asks about what you should do first; so though writing a change request and getting an approval is logical, even better is to first ascertain the impact of the change. You already know that the change can reduce the schedule, but you should also find the impact of this change on your other constraints, which are scope and cost. Once you have analyzed the impact of this change, you can submit a change request and seek approval. Hence, option B is the BEST course of action.
Explanations:The question is looking for details related to the closing process group. Scope verification is performed during the monitoring and controlling process group. So is the case with Perform Quality Control. One of the most important things to do during project closure is to create the lessons learned prior to disbanding the team.
Explanations:Greater the number of near-critical paths, greater the risk of the project not meeting its scheduled completion dates. This is because the near-critical path activities will have very little float, so thereby hardly any flexibility. Any slippages in these tasks, in addition to tasks on the Critical Path, can lead to schedule slippage. Hence, options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Explanations:Options C and D are incorrect as the Forward Pass is not used to calculate the duration. In fact, the critical path is calculated based on duration. Option B talks about Late Start and Late Finish, which are calculated using Backward Pass. Using Forward Pass
Explanations:The risks have been identified in the Risk register. Based on prioritization, risk priorities are also updated in the risk register. All risks that are deemed low on priority, though maintained in the Risk Register, are maintained in the Watch List specifically. The Risk Management Plan and the Issue Log are not meant to note or log risks. So, the correct answer is Watch List.
Explanations:All the options except option D are true regarding the project scope statement. The milestones are not defined in the Project Scope Statement
Explanations:Finish-to-Start means that the Successor Activity cannot start without the Predecessor activity being completed. In this case, the Design is the Predecessor activity and Development is the Successor Activity. So, here Development (Successor Activity) cannot start without completion of Design (Predecessor Activity).
Explanations:Your friend works in a Functional Organizational Structure. In such an organizational structure, all the power and authority reside with the Functional Manager. Such organizations are hierarchical in nature, where each employee has one clear superior. People are grouped by specialties (Functional) such as Mechanical, Accounts, Marketing, etc. These departments work independently of each other. So, the correct answer is option B - Functional Organization.
Explanations:Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) uses a weighted average duration estimate to calculate duration. It uses the probability of an estimate's accuracy. Expected Time = (Low + 4*Medium + High) / 6
Explanations:In Finish-to-Start relationship, Successor Activity cannot happen till Predecessor Activity is completed.
Explanations:This is an externally imposed or mandated dependency. Options A and B are the same and are not the correct choices.
Explanations:All the details stated are benefits of meeting Quality Requirements. By doing a cost benefit analysis of each quality activity, we can compare the cost of Quality with expected benefit. Options B, C, and D are, in fact, results of poor Quality.
Explanations:Did you choose option D? If so, read again. Which options sound incorrect? Changes to scope cannot be made without a cost implication. In fact, this is best applicable when the seller clearly defines the scope. If work needs to begin right away, the contract type should be Time and Money, not Fixed price since you may not have everything clearly defined.
Explanations:Control charts are graphic displays of the results over a time of a process. They are used to determine if the process is in control.""
Explanations:Be careful and read carefully regarding the situation you are being asked to evaluate. In this case, the change is not going to impact any of the baselines. In such cases, the project manager has the authority to make changes to the project if there is no impact on the baselines. This is one condition where changes can be made without undergoing change control, but note that this is done after ensuring that there is no impact on the baselines.
Explanations:Control Accounts are used to provide a cost estimate at a level higher than the work package. They are used as a technique in activity definition process. They are not used to control costs of the project and neither in Integrated change control.
Explanations:The correct answer is Option B. Option A is to be used when the project is within budget. In this case, the CPI value is less than 1, so the project is not within budget. Option B is to be used when the project is over budget, which is the case here. So, it is the correct formula to use. Options C and D are not TCPI formulas. They are the CPI and SPI calculations and thus are not the correct choice.
Explanations:Meeting" is not used as a tool and technique in conduct procurement process."
Explanations:After the Risks are identified, risk prioritization based on impact and probability is done in the Qualitative Risk Analysis. The question states that the risks are already identified, so Risk Identification is already done. Risk Register is an output of the Risk Identification process; there is no such process as Risk Register. Quantitative Risk Analysis deals with assigning a numerical value to each risk, so the correct answer is Qualitative Risk Analysis.
Explanations:Work Breakdown Structure shows all the tasks.
Explanations:Quality audits are part of the Perform Quality Assurance process.
Explanations:The correct answer is 15. Note that the question provides the initial number of communication channels as 6. This means the number of stakeholders are 4. With the addition of two more stakeholders, the number of stakeholders would increase to 6. So, the number of communication channels would be 15.
Explanations:Any changes being asked for or requested to any approved plan need to be formally reviewed by the Change Control Board. Option A is not the correct answer as no changes should be made without a formal approval from CCB. Option B sounds like the best choice, but the question states the impact of the change on the scope, and so the analysis of impact analysis on triple constraints
Explanations:Variance Analysis: Comparing target dates with the actual or forecast start and finish dates.
Explanations:As the project is falling behind schedule and deliveries cannot be impacted, the manager has chosen to add additional resources to activities on the critical path. This is an example of Crashing. NOTE that crashing may result in increased risk and rework.
Explanations:A Network Diagram is the best choice to identify the Activity Duration.
Explanations:CPI = EV/AC. If the EV is less than AC, then CPI less than 1, which means the project is over budget.
Explanations:This represents a Projectized Organization structure. In a Projectized organization, teams are disbanded at the end of the project. In a Functional organization, teams report to the Functional manager and are never disbanded. They continue in their own departments and continue to report to the Functional Manager. A weak matrix organization is very similar to a Functional Organization, and role of Project Manager is limited. In a balanced matrix organization, staff reports to a Project manager and a Functional Manager. In the question, there is no mention of a functional manager, so Balanced Matrix is also not the correct option.
Explanations:The process of communicating and working with the stakeholders to meet their expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project lifecycle is called Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
Explanations:The correct answer is D - none of the above. Contingency Reserves are part of cost baseline, while Management reserves are not. So, Option A is clearly incorrect. Contingency Reserves are meant to take care of risk-mitigating cost for identified risks. They are the costs of known unknowns, while Management reserve is for unknown unknowns—things like unforeseen work that is part of the scope. Options B and C state exactly the opposite, so they are not the correct answers, which leaves us with D - None of the above.
Explanations:Option A is to be used if past CPI is expected to continue. Option B is to be used if future work is going to be performed at the planned rate. Option C is to be used if deadlines must be met and both CPI and SPI influence remaining work. Here, the project must be completed within stipulated timelines. Option D is to be used when the initial plan is no longer valid, which is not the case here.
Explanations:The best course of immediate action on identifying a risk is to add it to the risk register along with its probability and impact. That is applicable for risks and not issues. In this case, the risk has already occurred. It is no longer a risk; it’s a reality, an issue. While scheduling a meeting is an option, it’s not the best choice. Being a project manager, you are empowered and calling up meetings every time you run into issues would not be looked upon favorably. The correct answer is using the management reserve which is meant for unknown risks. Contingency reserves are meant to be used for known risks.
Explanations:The project management plan contains the following baselines: Scope, Schedule, and Cost. In fact, there is no such baseline as a Quality Baseline.
Explanations:You have the responsibility to provide accurate, truthful representations concerning your qualifications, experience, and performance of services to a company.
Explanations:CV = (EV - AC). So, if the Cost Variance is in the negative, the Actual Cost is greater than the earned value, which means the project is running over budget.
Explanations:Documentation reviews help identify risks based on the plans and assumptions, so this is a Risk Identification tool. Brainstorming deals with getting together various stakeholders and identifying potential risks. Interviewing experienced project participants, stakeholders, and subject matter experts is also a great way of identifying risks. Risk Register is not a tool; it is the document in which identified risks are documented. The Risk Register is not a Risk Identification tool.
Explanations:Options A, B, and C are benefits of meeting Quality Requirements. The question states what has contributed to increased cost of Quality. As the stakeholder is not satisfied with the deliverables, there is rework involved. There is an impact on productivity and increase in cost. It also decreases stakeholder satisfaction. So, amongst the choices, option D is the correct option.
Explanations:Project Quality Management includes Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection, Continuous improvement and Management responsibility.
Explanations:Stakeholder register contains details of stakeholders, such as name, location, etc. and their expectations, interests, and influence. It also provides information as to whether they are internal or external, supportive or in resistance, or neutral. So, the best source of information regarding stakeholders is the Stakeholder Register, which is option D.
Explanations:WBS Dictionary provides details of the work to be done.
Explanations:Independent cost estimate is not part of procurement documentation. It is produced as benchmark to compare the seller prices. The aspects of procurement documentation are listed under table 12-1 of PMBOK.
Explanations:Herzberg's hygiene theory states that it is the job content that motivates staff. So in this case, Option A is not the correct answer. Maslow’s theory of hierarchy of needs indicates the levels of needs starting with Physiological needs and ending with Self-Actualization, so Option B is not correct as well. Vroom's Expectancy theory states that employees can be motivated by altering the person's effort-to-performance expectancy, performance-to-reward expectancy, and reward valences. So, Option C is correct. Option D is clearly incorrect as the question does not indicate any imposed mandates or threats which would fall under Theory X style of management.
Explanations:Options A, C, and D correctly state the disadvantages of starting a project without a formal approved charter. These are the very reasons why a project should not be started without an approved charter. The correct answer to the question is option B since it incorrectly states that there is no risk of increased changes without an approved project charter.
Explanations:SPI = EV / PV. If the EV is greater than PV, then SPI > 1, which means the project is ahead of schedule.
Explanations:The correct answer is B. The question states that issues or lack of them experienced in the project are expected to continue. So here, the past performance is expected to continue. So, the formula: EAC = BAC / CPI. CPI = EV / AC = 300 / 100 = 3 EAC = 600 / 3 = 200.
Explanations:Both Bob and Kelly have power and authority. However the differentiator seems to be their level of interest. While Kelly is disinterested, Bob has a high level of interest in the project. Stakeholders who have a high level of interest and who wield a lot of authority or power should be Managed closely, in this case Bob. Stakeholders who have a low level of interest but who wield a lot of authority or power should be Kept satisfied, in this case Kelly.
Explanations:Option A is the correct answer. It correctly explains Rolling Wave Planning. Option B, C, and D are clearly not correct since not all details are estimated upfront, rather only the immediate activities or tasks are estimated upfront. This process is performed iteratively and not only once.
Explanations:While all the options seem to be good choices, the best choice in this case would be Organizational Process Assets. Lessons learned are always a part of the Organizational process assets. It is such assets that enable an organization take informed decisions.
Explanations:Parametric estimates is the correct choice. This is so because we have derived the cost per unit, cost of cables per feet, etc. Based on the unit cost, parametric estimates are used to determine an estimate of the total cost.
Explanations:Scope Verification occurs at the end of each phase of the project. Option A relates to Product verification not Scope verification.
Explanations:All the options except Option D correctly state the differences between administrative and contract closure. Option D is not true since in both forms of closure, lessons learned are documented and updated to the Organizational Process Assets (OPA).
Explanations:This is an example of Scope Creep. Integrated change control deals with formally approving or rejecting changes before they are implemented, so it is not the correct answer. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique, so it too is not the correct answer. While Gold Plating is related to change in scope it is generally done intentionally or knowingly for some strategic purpose. Scope creep relates to uncontrolled changes in product or projects scope and is often due to client interference.
Explanations:Option A, B, and C are the objectives or goals of this exercise. The purpose of the audit is to identify what is working well and what is missing, but never to find root cause of issues, which is done in Process analysis. Since the question is asking what is not a goal or objective of performing a Quality Audit, option D is the correct answer.
Explanations:Option D is the correct answer. As per Maslow’s theory of Hierarchical needs, the first need of humans is a basic need for survival (air, water, food, etc.). This need is termed Physiological. Once this need is met, the next need is the need of Safety and Security. This can be in the form of a Secure Job, Health, Insurance, etc. The next need is termed need of Love or Belonging. As per Maslow’s theory, humans need to belong and find acceptance among their social groups. The fourth need is termed the need of Esteem—to be respected and valued by others. Once the above four needs are met, then the final one is Self-Actualization, which is the desire to accomplish. So, the correct order of needs as per this theory is Physiological, Safety, Love/Belonging, Esteem, and Self-actualization.
Explanations:Options A and C are wrong. You should always ensure activities on the critical path do not get delayed. So, having the best equipped staff on critical path activities is important. Option B cannot be the BEST choice. If you assign all the experienced staff on building the wind tunnel, the critical path activities are taken care of but the question also states of a path which is near-critical—building of the tail. Not paying attention to this path by assigning inexperienced staff is not a good option. Among the choices, option D is the best fit, where you are paying attention to both the critical path and near-critical path by assigning your best and most skilled or experienced resources to the activities on both paths.
Explanations:Feasibility study determines if a project is realistic or not.